Thursday, March 26, 2009

What's The Call Thursday!

Today's Post is brought to us by our very own Jon Payne.

One out and runners on 1st and 3rd.

Strike three swinging, the batter interferes with the catchers throw to 2nd and throw does not retire the runner. The runner from 3rd scores.

What happens now? What if there were also no outs prior to the strike out?

Thanks

10 comments:

  1. You would call the R1 out due to the batter's interference for the third out. Because the interference happened before the run scored, the run is nullified.
    If there were NO out prior to the K, you would have R1 still out on the batter's interference, making it two outs, but R3 would go back to 3rd, as batter's interference is a delayed dead ball situation.

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  2. I would say in this case, batter/runner is out on strikes. The runner on 3rd gets called out on the interference, no run scores. The inning is over.

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  3. With no outs, batter is out on strikes, runner from third is out on the interference call, no run scores, and other runner is sent back to first.

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  4. I think Taylor is right in the 1-out situation, but with no outs, the batter would be out and both runners would return.

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  5. One out, runner on 1st out. Runner on third sent back.

    Two outs, batter out. Right?

    Paul Yarbrough

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  6. Never mind. Misread it in a rush.

    Paul Y.

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  7. I believe Taylor is right as well.

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  8. With no outs, I believe the batter would be out on strikes, R3 is called out, no run scores, R1 returns to first.

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  9. Yes, I remembered that the batter was already out on strikes about 2 minutes after I posted that...when I was already in the car.

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